John 3:16 Examined

 

Sami Zaatari

 

 

 

One of THE most famous Gospel passages that Christians like to use is that of John 3:16, which reads as follows:

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

They love to quote this passage when they preach and try to convert. Here is one example from missionary Dallas Roark of answering-Islam, he writes:

Do you really want God? There is no other way than through Jesus. I urge you to consider these words and give your commitment to Him. For "God loved the people of this world so much that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who has faith in him will have eternal life and never really die." (John 3:16 CEV) God's love commands a response from you in love and faith.

 

So John 3:16 is meant to be this lovely and beautiful verse that should make us gentile dogs (According to the Biblical Jesus) see the truth and readily accept it.

 

Well since the Christian wants us to accept the truth, and become Christian, we must therefore examine the verse. This indeed is a huge step in one's life to convert to the faith of Christianity, hence the step must not be blindly taken, rather the one who is seeking the truth must first examine the evidence and then see if it is the truth.

 

This is what this article is about; the objective is to examine John 3:16. Or is that not allowed for Christian missionaries? Did they expect us to convert blindly just because they quoted a biblical passage and say it is the truth?

 

With that said let us now examine this passage from the Gospel of John, I re quote the verse again:

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Okay, so this verse is meant to show how God loves us so much, Christians often use this verse to show God's universal love. For starters, there is nothing about universal love in this verse; the verse is being general, and not specific. The verse says for God loved the WORLD, it doesn't say God loved EVERYONE, or God loved EVERYONE ON EARTH, rather it says God loves the world, a general claim, not a specific claim which refutes the false myth that this verse proves that God loves everybody.

 

For instance if I say I love animals, it is a general claim, but it doesn't mean I like every specific type of animal, such as a pig, I don't like pigs. Or if I say I love food, which I indeed do, I love food very much, but I don't like lasagna! So as you can see, I am being general in my claim, not specific. The same with this passage, when God says he loves the world it is a general claim, not an absaloute and specific claim that he loves us all.

 

Now as a truth seeker I am compelled to ask my Christian missionary friends this question. Why have you lied to me for so long? Why have you constantly used this verse as a proof that God loves EVERYONE including ME when the verse doesn't teach that? How can I trust anything you say now when you lie to me about this verse and give a false meaning to myself and billions of others?

 

Moving on, we find another problem with this verse. As I already mentioned, due to the fact that this verse is a GENERAL claim, and not specific, it also means the son who was sent was not sent for everyone.

 

I re quote the verse again:

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Christians claim that God sent his son for us. Yet since we have established the fact that the verse is general, and not specific, it also means that Jesus was generally sent for the world, and that he wasn't SPECIFICALLY sent for EVERYONE.

What this means is that this verse teaches LIMITED ATONEMENT, meaning the son was not sent to save us all, but for some people only! So how can a Christian use this verse as a proof for me when I might not be included in one of these saved persons?! As far as I'm concerned I could be a human whom God doesn't like, and a person whom the son was not sent for.

So let us establish what we have so far. So far we have seen that John 3:16 does not preach that God loves us all, rather he makes a general claim of love, not a specific claim of love for everyone. This therefore also means that when the son is sent for us, he is only sent generally and not specifically for everyone, meaning not everyone has a chance of redemption, and that atonement is basically LIMITED and for a select few who are loved by God. So as far as I know, I am damned. L

Secondly, the word WHOSOEVER that is used in John 3:16 means PAS in Greek, the word PAS in Greek does not have to mean EVERYONE as meaning each single person, as Charles H. Spurgeon explains:

'The whole world is gone after him.' Did all the world go after Christ? 'Then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan.' Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem baptized in Jordan? 'Ye are of God, little children', and 'the whole world lieth in the wicked one.' Does 'the whole world' there mean everybody? If so, how was it, then, that there were some who were 'of God?' The words 'world' and 'all' are used in some seven or eight senses in Scripture; and it is very rarely that 'all' means all persons, taken individually. The words are generally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts?some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has not restricted his redemption to either Jew or Gentile." (Charles H. Spurgeon, Particular Redemption, A Sermon, 28 Feb 1858).

So John 3:16 teaches limited atonement, not atonement for every single human being.

How can a missionary say otherwise? That I am saved and loved? The same missionary who LIED to me and said John 3:16 teaches that God loves EVERYONE when it doesn't. So how can I be confident by a missionary who now tries to reassure me that I am not damned and I am one of those whom God loves, and one of those whom the son was sent for.

So let us continue to examine the verse, I re quote it again:

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Okay, I see many more problems now. God loves some of so much so he sends his son?! Why didn't he send himself? The only LOGICAL explanation and conclusion one can reach is that God is a coward. I don't mean to sound offensive, but the fact is this, no Father sends his son to do his hard and dangerous work for himself. A father doesn't put his son in harm's way, but he takes the harm and pain of his son so his son doesn't have to suffer.

What kind of God is this that you want me to believe in? Any honest father in this world will know this is very wrong, and this is not a very ?Godly' thing to do.

Secondly, what is your Bible trying to say when it says God has a BEGOTTEN son of God? If the term son of God is not meant to be taken literally then why is a literal word of offspring through sexual intercourse being used? There are 2 solutions to this, either your God physically had sex with a lady to have Jesus, hence he is called BEGOTTEN. Or someone lied and made this up, and if someone did lie, then your book isn't from God, and it is all doubtful.

Since there can't be any lies in the Bible as Christians tell me, I am forced to come to the first conclusion, that your God literally had sex to beget Jesus his son. This now makes me ask, who did God sleep with? Mary? It must have been her since she is the mother of Jesus, Catholics who are the majority of Christians call Mary the mother of God. So Mary is the mother of Jesus, God is the father of Jesus, Jesus is the begotten son, therefore we have God and Mary having sex to beget Jesus, hence he is called the begotten son of God.

Now if God had sex with Mary to beget Jesus, did God marry Mary? Or was this a one night stand and never again? Or did God marry Mary for one night and then divorce her after the second night when she became pregnant? Or did they stay married forever?

I find this very irrational and hard to believe I'm afraid, I believe this verse is making a mockery of God, and I believe this is the truth:

072.003
YUSUFALI: 'And Exalted is the Majesty of our Lord: He has taken neither a wife nor a son.

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YUSUFALI: He begetteth not, nor is He begotten;

Let us continue to analyze this verse, I re quote it again:

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

So if I accept the Son, meaning Jesus, and sincerely believe in him, then I get eternal life! Now what if I don't accept the FATHER? What happens? It seems nothing; I found a loop hole it seems! The verse clearly says that I must believe IN THE SON to have eternal life, it doesn't say I must believe in the son AND the father! It just says I must accept the son!

On top of that, the verse says nothing about the Holy Spirit; the verse doesn't say you must believe in the Son AND the Father AND the Holy Spirit! So why do I need the Father if I don't even have to accept him? I guess I should just disregard both him and the Holy Spirit and just take the Son.

The Christian might say but my friend Sami read the context, and I will respond back and say but my Christian friend, YOU'RE THE ONE WHO DIDN'T GIVE ME THE CONTEXT, AND SIMPLY QUOTE JOHN 3:16 AS THE VERSE TO OPEN MY EYES AND ACCEPT THE TRUTH! So if you want context then why don't you quote the context? Why just one verse as if to show this one verse alone is so magnificent and powerful to convert me? Hence this is not my problem, it is your problem.

Conclusion

So I have read and examined John 3:16, I have seen no truth in it, nothing special, nothing that made me say wow this is the truth! All I saw was confusion, insults, and mockery to God. If this is meant to be THE verse for Christianity, then I really don't know what to say!

And Allah Knows Best!

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